A Freeman
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Tag your “it”
There is a lot of unnecessary confusion about Philippians 2:6 for two primary reasons:
1) because it's been very poorly translated; and
2) because people ignore the glaring contradictions it poses in its mistranslated state (cognitive dissonance).
Please see the King James Version of the passage in question below:
Philippians 2:5-11 (KJV)
2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
2:11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
If one takes an honest look at this passage it should be self-evident that verse 2:6 not only contradicts itself, but it also contradicts the context of the entire passage (Php. 2:5-11), and the words of Christ.
Does God make Himself of no reputation? Does God make Himself in the likeness of men (Num. 23:19)? Does The Most High need to humble Himself? To whom would God be obedient or serve? How could our Eternal/Everlasting, All-Powerful, All-Knowing, Ever-Present and Unchanging God die (Ps. 90:2, Mal. 3:6)?
The passage is about learning HUMILITY from Christ's Example. There would be nothing humble about considering oneself to be equal to The Most High God, something that Christ clearly didn't think of Himself (John 10:29, John 13:16, John 14:28).
John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come [again] unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for MY FATHER IS GREATER THAN I.
Christ also quite clearly didn't think of Himself as God; Christ's God and Father is our God and Father (Matt. 27:46, John 20:17, Rev. 3:12), which is why Christ taught His Disciples to pray to Father (Matt. 6:9-13).
John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto MY FATHER, and your Father; and [to] MY GOD, and your God.
Thus the words of Christ alone prove beyond any doubt that Philippians 2:6 has very obviously been mistranslated, and a careful look at the verse itself and its context confirms this.
The opening phrase of verse 2:6 states the following from the original Greek:
2:6 Who, being in the form of God;
No one, including God Himself, would describe themselves as being “in the form (or likeness) of themselves”; they would only describe another in such a way. Like a father describing his son as “a chip off the old block”. This statement is thus, by itself, confirming Christ's own words that He is NOT God, nor God's equal. As it says elsewhere in Scripture, Christ was CREATED/MADE in the IMAGE (likeness) of God (2 Cor. 4:4, Col. 1:15, Heb. 1:3). An image is NOT the original; it is a LIKENESS of the original, having its form.
The second phrase from verse 2:6 is rendered as follows in the KJV:
thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
and somewhat differently in other versions, where “grasped” or “clinged to”, etc. have been used without any support from the original Greek. The word “robbery” is derived from the Greek word: ἁρπαγμὸν (harpagmon), which occurs only once in Scripture: in Philippians 2:6.
The obvious mistranslation in the KJV creates yet another ridiculous paradox, on top of it contradicting Christ's own words in hundreds of other verses. Different parts of the same verse not only contradict each other, it then would have us believe Christ was rationalizing why it shouldn't be thought of as robbery to supposedly be equal to God.
IF Christ was already equal with God, what would be the point of Christ considering it not to be robbery? And if Christ considered it not to be robbery to be equal to God, then why didn't He personally tell His Disciples He this? We know instead that Christ told them that He is subordinate to Father, because Father is greater than He is. And Paul confirmed this in other places as well.
1 Corinthians 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman [is] the man; and the head of Christ [is] God.
1 Corinthians 15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto Him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
There is also the extremely deceitful insertion of the word “it” in the KJV, which isn't found in the original Greek. In other words, “harpagmon”, could not possibly be translated as “it robbery” even if “robbery” is considered to be accurate. The reason this insertion is important is because it totally changes the meaning of the verse.
The following example illustrating this with two sentences is from:
http://www.trinityexamined.com/philippians-26-the-trinity-and-equality-with-god/
Sentence #1: “He did not consider it robbery to assume the throne.”
This person assumed the throne and did not consider it robbery to do so. Now, the second sentence is identical, except it removes the word “it.”
Sentence #2: “He did not consider robbery to assume the throne.”
Now this person would not even consider the act of robbery to assume the throne.
Hopefully this illustrates how the meaning can be completely reversed merely with the insertion of the word “it”, which is not part of the original Greek. Christ, Who was doing miracles while inside the body of Jesus, including raising people from the dead, could easily have claimed to be equal with God being able to do such things; BUT HE DID NOT DO THAT.
Instead, Christ consistently and repeatedly gave ALL of the credit and the glory for EVERYTHING that He did to His Father and His God, without Whom Christ said He could do NOTHING (John 5:19-21).
Therefore, if the KJV had been properly translated directly from the Greek, using “robbery” for “harpagmon”, Philippians 2:6 would read as follows:
2:6 Who, being in the form of God, did not consider robbery to be equal with God:
which would then be in perfect agreement with the rest of the verse (2:6), with the context of the passage, and with everything that Christ Himself actually said.
Philippians 2:5-11 (KJV)
2:5 Let THIS mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus (would you think it humble to consider yourself equal to God?):
2:6 Who, being in the form of God (not God Himself – Col. 1:12-15, Rev. 3:12), did not consider robbery to be equal with God (i.e. Christ thought it NOT correct to be equal with God, which would have been robbery):
2:7 But made himself of no reputation (which would preclude claiming to be equal to God, as to God goes ALL of the glory), and took upon him the form of a servant (to God – Matt. 10:24, John 13:16), and was made in the likeness of men (which God could NEVER do – Num. 23:19, 1 Sam. 15:29, Hos. 11:9):
2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself (before God), and became obedient (to God) unto death, even the death of the cross.
2:9 Wherefore God (Christ's Father and God) also hath highly exalted him (Christ), and GIVEN him a name which is above every name (Saviour):
2:10 That at the name of Jesus (Saviour) every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth (except for God Himself – 1 Cor. 15:28);
2:11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
1 Corinthians 15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto Him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
There is a lot of unnecessary confusion about Philippians 2:6 for two primary reasons:
1) because it's been very poorly translated; and
2) because people ignore the glaring contradictions it poses in its mistranslated state (cognitive dissonance).
Please see the King James Version of the passage in question below:
Philippians 2:5-11 (KJV)
2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
2:11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
If one takes an honest look at this passage it should be self-evident that verse 2:6 not only contradicts itself, but it also contradicts the context of the entire passage (Php. 2:5-11), and the words of Christ.
Does God make Himself of no reputation? Does God make Himself in the likeness of men (Num. 23:19)? Does The Most High need to humble Himself? To whom would God be obedient or serve? How could our Eternal/Everlasting, All-Powerful, All-Knowing, Ever-Present and Unchanging God die (Ps. 90:2, Mal. 3:6)?
The passage is about learning HUMILITY from Christ's Example. There would be nothing humble about considering oneself to be equal to The Most High God, something that Christ clearly didn't think of Himself (John 10:29, John 13:16, John 14:28).
John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come [again] unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for MY FATHER IS GREATER THAN I.
Christ also quite clearly didn't think of Himself as God; Christ's God and Father is our God and Father (Matt. 27:46, John 20:17, Rev. 3:12), which is why Christ taught His Disciples to pray to Father (Matt. 6:9-13).
John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto MY FATHER, and your Father; and [to] MY GOD, and your God.
Thus the words of Christ alone prove beyond any doubt that Philippians 2:6 has very obviously been mistranslated, and a careful look at the verse itself and its context confirms this.
The opening phrase of verse 2:6 states the following from the original Greek:
2:6 Who, being in the form of God;
No one, including God Himself, would describe themselves as being “in the form (or likeness) of themselves”; they would only describe another in such a way. Like a father describing his son as “a chip off the old block”. This statement is thus, by itself, confirming Christ's own words that He is NOT God, nor God's equal. As it says elsewhere in Scripture, Christ was CREATED/MADE in the IMAGE (likeness) of God (2 Cor. 4:4, Col. 1:15, Heb. 1:3). An image is NOT the original; it is a LIKENESS of the original, having its form.
The second phrase from verse 2:6 is rendered as follows in the KJV:
thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
and somewhat differently in other versions, where “grasped” or “clinged to”, etc. have been used without any support from the original Greek. The word “robbery” is derived from the Greek word: ἁρπαγμὸν (harpagmon), which occurs only once in Scripture: in Philippians 2:6.
The obvious mistranslation in the KJV creates yet another ridiculous paradox, on top of it contradicting Christ's own words in hundreds of other verses. Different parts of the same verse not only contradict each other, it then would have us believe Christ was rationalizing why it shouldn't be thought of as robbery to supposedly be equal to God.
IF Christ was already equal with God, what would be the point of Christ considering it not to be robbery? And if Christ considered it not to be robbery to be equal to God, then why didn't He personally tell His Disciples He this? We know instead that Christ told them that He is subordinate to Father, because Father is greater than He is. And Paul confirmed this in other places as well.
1 Corinthians 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman [is] the man; and the head of Christ [is] God.
1 Corinthians 15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto Him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
There is also the extremely deceitful insertion of the word “it” in the KJV, which isn't found in the original Greek. In other words, “harpagmon”, could not possibly be translated as “it robbery” even if “robbery” is considered to be accurate. The reason this insertion is important is because it totally changes the meaning of the verse.
The following example illustrating this with two sentences is from:
http://www.trinityexamined.com/philippians-26-the-trinity-and-equality-with-god/
Sentence #1: “He did not consider it robbery to assume the throne.”
This person assumed the throne and did not consider it robbery to do so. Now, the second sentence is identical, except it removes the word “it.”
Sentence #2: “He did not consider robbery to assume the throne.”
Now this person would not even consider the act of robbery to assume the throne.
Hopefully this illustrates how the meaning can be completely reversed merely with the insertion of the word “it”, which is not part of the original Greek. Christ, Who was doing miracles while inside the body of Jesus, including raising people from the dead, could easily have claimed to be equal with God being able to do such things; BUT HE DID NOT DO THAT.
Instead, Christ consistently and repeatedly gave ALL of the credit and the glory for EVERYTHING that He did to His Father and His God, without Whom Christ said He could do NOTHING (John 5:19-21).
Therefore, if the KJV had been properly translated directly from the Greek, using “robbery” for “harpagmon”, Philippians 2:6 would read as follows:
2:6 Who, being in the form of God, did not consider robbery to be equal with God:
which would then be in perfect agreement with the rest of the verse (2:6), with the context of the passage, and with everything that Christ Himself actually said.
Philippians 2:5-11 (KJV)
2:5 Let THIS mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus (would you think it humble to consider yourself equal to God?):
2:6 Who, being in the form of God (not God Himself – Col. 1:12-15, Rev. 3:12), did not consider robbery to be equal with God (i.e. Christ thought it NOT correct to be equal with God, which would have been robbery):
2:7 But made himself of no reputation (which would preclude claiming to be equal to God, as to God goes ALL of the glory), and took upon him the form of a servant (to God – Matt. 10:24, John 13:16), and was made in the likeness of men (which God could NEVER do – Num. 23:19, 1 Sam. 15:29, Hos. 11:9):
2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself (before God), and became obedient (to God) unto death, even the death of the cross.
2:9 Wherefore God (Christ's Father and God) also hath highly exalted him (Christ), and GIVEN him a name which is above every name (Saviour):
2:10 That at the name of Jesus (Saviour) every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth (except for God Himself – 1 Cor. 15:28);
2:11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
1 Corinthians 15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto Him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.