Yes, but that does not equal membership in the Church.
Well from the original question I was saying that those in OT had Faith in the coming Messiah, and that we have Faith in the Messiah who has come, you distinguished that there is a difference in the OT had Faith but it isnt the same as being built on the Blood of the Messiah.
If the Blood flows from the beginning of Time, and the OT had Faith in THAT Blood, the Blood of the Messiah to come, then why would they not be considered part of the Church? Thats the progression I am trying to understand. We (The Church) are saved by Faith thru Grace in the shed Blood of the Messiah. The Blood flows from the beginning of time, thus the OT who had Faith in the Messiah to come are also covered and had Faith in the same Blood so why a distinction and rejection of them from the Church?
The Salvation of Israel was and is built on the Blood of the Lamb and that Blood flows from the beginning of time there is no difference in Salvation for them or us or anyone else...
The Church is the bride of Christ, comprised of believers who are sealed at salvation with the Holy Spirit. Old Testament believers were never sealed with the Holy Spirit. If they were, when did or does that occur?
So I would like to know why you suggest that the indwelling of the Holy Spirit is the definitive aspect of the Church? I would think that what makes someone a part of the Church is Salvation, do they believe and are they Saved. It is apparent that the method in which the Holy Spirit operated was different between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant but the Holy Spirit was still operating. In fact I was reading in Acts last night and Stephen said this right before the Jews murdered him:
Acts 7:51 Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye.
I could quote many more Scriptures concerning the fact that the Holy Spirit was in operation during the Old Testament, and as I have stated in the past everyone has always been saved the same, by Faith thru Grace. There is definitely a difference in the operation of the Holy Spirit then and now, but how does the method in which the Holy Spirit operate determine ones inclusion or exclusion into the Church. In my view its simply are you saved or not, that is what includes one into the Church regardless of what era they are saved.
What does Scripture say concerning the Body of Christ (is this a metaphor for the Church in your mind, it is for me?)...
Eph 2:14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
17 And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.
18 For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.
19 Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
20 And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
21 In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:
22 In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.
When I read this I dont see a separation, I see those that were NOT included (the Gentiles) being ushered into something established by the Old Testament Saints and now the Gentiles become fellowcitizens with those from the Old Testament that were saved and now we ALL are ONE body. This Scripture pretty much says those in the future will be added to those in the past making ONE body and ONE building, there is no distinction between Old and New here.
I would say the onus is on you to show the separation via Scripture alone not preconceived ideologies, that the Church is a wholly different and separate entity that is not at all comprised of ANYONE from the Old Testament...
The bride of Christ will be presented to him "a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish." If Israel is already God's unfaithful wife, how does she manage to disguise herself as a spotless virgin and become the bride of Christ?
So let me ask are WE spotless and a virgin before coming to Christ? I dont believe we are instead we are REDEEMED and MADE to be spotless by the Blood. The Old Testament as I have shown in the previous posts speaks specifically as God REDEEMING and RESTORING the Bride from its infidelity. We were unfaithful in the same manner as Israel, but I think the biggest problem is trying to make Israel dealt with as a WHOLE NATION instead of as individuals. As I posted previously Paul says Israel isnt NOT all Israel but only the believers make up Israel. The individuals are REDEEMED, just as we were, the individuals are RESTORED just as we were.
Do you believe God to be a polygamous? If God Restores and Redeems Israel as His Bride and also has us as His Bride then He has 2 Brides. Do you believe God will have 2 Brides? I surely dont, God has ONE Bride that consists of the believers that were in Israel and us now...
I can't stress this enough, but the Bible is clear that the relationship the Church has with Jesus Christ is completely different than any believer in any other age will have. If you get that wrong, nothing else adds up properly.
I understand your necessity in stressing such a point, even if you can not prove such a thing exists via Scripture alone because if we begin to understand that all the Promises given to Israel have been fulfilled in the New Covenant then your entire ideology falls apart. As you said nothing will add up properly and that is exactly what I am trying to work thru with you. If the Church ISNT a separate entity, if the Israel ISNT wholly apart from the Church then how can you still believe in this restoration of Israel physically?
Hopefully you can understand the purpose of my questioning, and discuss it instead of brushing it off because I dont accept the premise that there is a difference between those who were saved in Israel and believers today... I fully understand your position, I used to believe as you do now, but I am finding problems with these positions, are you willing to discuss and work thru with me the questions I have?