I quote points from your long posts... and respond to that.
This is your opinion of God based on your private interpretation from a mishmash of bible and quran verses.
In the bible the eternal Logos of God who 2000 years ago was born on earth as the Son of God... is just a prophet in the quran.
If you don't understand that you must either pick the bible or the quran or neither... you are well some would say a moron.
Jesus said crystal clearly in the bible that it is He and nobody else who will judge everybody.
So tell Him then how God really is and how He fits into that according to your understanding.
This Jesus is God stuff and Judge come from the bible.
John 5 22Furthermore, the Father judges no one, but has assigned all judgment to the Son, 23so that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.
John 8 23Then He told them, “You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world. 24That is why I told you that you would die in your sins. For unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins.”
John 8 58“Truly, truly, I tell you,” Jesus declared, “before Abraham was, I am!”
John 14 6Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me. 7If you had known Me, you would know My Father as well. From now on you do know Him and have seen Him.”
These are just a few verses from Jesus own mouth... saying things which only God or a madman would say. Jesus is not a madman.
Jesus is the Logos of God and the Holy spirit is the Spirit of God.
Not so unlike the body soul and spirit trinity in man.
Do you have a soul ? If yes... would you say your soul is another than yourself ?
I would say of course not. My soul is absolutely part and parcel of myself.
We three (body soul spirit) are intrinsically entwined and together in this.
So where is the polytheism in this ? It's only an error idea in your mind.
What ?
You use the quran to interpret the bible.
That's like using the devil's drivel to interpret God's word.
I'm saying that the entity behind the quran... pretends to be God or Allah.
So arabs can read about God or Allah in the bible... but just leave the quran closed and out of it. Burn it.
Right.
Who's the king of Babylon ? No who is the king of Babylon ?
He will pretend to be God on the mount of assembly on the zaphon or north side.
God had a temple there on the mount of assembly for a thousand years... but an impostor will as well.
And that impostor is called Helel that is
Crescent and he have
five statements or
pillars... but will end up in the
Pit (under the Dome of the Rock).
God and gods that is angels are called elohim in the bible.
There are a lot of angels so no shortage of elohim.
El Shadday is what God presented himself as before the time of Moses.
only annoying idiots dissect posts the way you keep doing. it is a diversion tactic aimed to put the other person off from responding.
1)
you said
This is your opinion of God based on your private interpretation from a mishmash of bible and quran verses.
In the bible the eternal Logos of God who 2000 years ago was born on earth as the Son of God... is just a prophet in the quran.
If you don't understand that you must either pick the bible or the quran or neither... you are well some would say a moron.
what id said previously was this
what i know is that there that the Father alone is TRANCENDENT and is the only primordial power.
The Son is 'transparent' or akin to a prism through which the the light of God is expressed eg made IMMANENT...
that is...'the Father is made known through the Son'
The Son is empty otherwise and has nothing, no knowledge of the last hour for example. 'the son can do nothing on his own, it is the Father doing it through the son'.
this isnt some mishmash of anything...because i directly quoted from the wikipedia info on 'immanence' and quoted what it said under 'christianity'
the FATHER ALONE IS TRANCENDENT.
The LOGOS is the IMMANENCE OF GOD, which itself is eternal.
Since God is eternal, all things in creation past present and future, have existed in an eternal state 'with God' as it were...since God has known about everything eternally...that 'place' if you will, in God's knowledge, is the origin of all things and hence their true reality.
That is the meaning of LOGOS.
furthermore your theology is broken. Since John 1:1 specifically saya
THE WORD WAS WITH GOD
AND
THE WORD IS GOD
the 2 are contradictory statements on the surface. They need balancing and my viewpoint acheives that whilst yours ignores the former for the latter, something xtians do when they throw the bible behind their arses whenever it suits them. pathetic.
2) Your view about Jesus being given the task of judgement, doesnt make him 'fully/Absolute/Tracendent God'
nor does it meet the requirements of the so called trinity which claims the father, son and holy spirit are CO EQUALS in Godhead...
despite Jesus said
'i cant do anything by myself, i am empty, God does it all through me'
thus it makes sense that i see the logos as a prism through which the singular Trancendent power becomes Immanent.
what is 'the WORD', it is God's EXPRESSION.
thus just like with John 1:1, i have constantly told christians that
'there are 2 pov's, the logical left brain pov and the mystical right brain pov...and john1:1 contains boths'
and hence the xtian problem is that they have taken the mystical part and adopted only that, then tried to turn it into a logical statement and failed every time.
am i the Soul, Mind and body? from the logical left brain pov, the soul is acting through them...but the mind and body contain elements of their own that do not belong to the soul and thus the body nor the mind can be called 'the soul'.
that's my point. the logos and holy spirit are the macrocosmic and microcosmic expressions of the Father's Immanence. The Trancendent Father is Immanent through them.
so when you worship Jesus as God, you forget that the LOGOS is not merely limited to Jesus, but is ALL THINGS IN CREATION, the origin of them all...and hence
Romans 11
For of him, and through him, and unto him, are all things.
As ive also explained before, Jesus is adoni 'lord' whilst God is 'adonai'
we constantly see in the epistles of Paul, that he always says GOD THE FATHER...not GOD THE SON
eg
Grace and peace to you from God our Father and from the Lord Jesus Christ.
given 'lord' is adoni here...it is you xtians who capitalise the L in order to prove how pagan you really are.
you guys are theologically broken man.
3) no 'God' never had a temple on actual mt zaphon.
mt zaphon may have been called 'the mount of assembly' but that doesnt mean it is the temple mount which is also given that name.
just because 2 different places are assigned the same term, doesnt make both true. it's just that the pagans believed mt zaphon was the holiest of holiest...NOT jerusalem.
AND NO, the king of babylon didnt think he was God. if such was the case, why did we see evidence on the contrary in the book of Daniel?
king
"Daniel had a strong influence on King Nebuchadnezzar’s religious beliefs. In the Bible’s version of events, Daniel’s God ultimately proves to be the supreme God, above all ancient gods. Nebuchadnezzar came to rely on the God of Israel, Daniel’s God, after demanding that the magicians tell him what he had dreamed of and what his dream was about. In the biblical story, they all fail to do so, except for Daniel, who explains to the king that only his God could accomplish this task. Daniel both tells the king about his dream and interprets it (Daniel 2:24-49). "
4) lastly, the name for 'gods' in arabic is ILAH....whilst God alone is ALLAH.
you're trying to find something in semantics but have zero substance in any point.
in arabic the word for lord is rabb..but in application, muslims only assign it to God alone. historically it would have been used even for men. however prophet Mohammad rejected such us.
the jews did not apply 'elohim' to angels though, they called them 'ben elohim' (sons of God'.
The word elohim or 'elohiym (ʼĕlôhîym) is a grammatically plural noun for "gods" or "deities" or various other words in Biblical Hebrew.[1][2][4][7][8][9][12]
In Hebrew, the ending -im normally indicates a masculine plural. However, when referring to the Jewish God, Elohim is usually understood to be grammatically singular (i.e. it governs a singular verb or adjective).[6][13] In Modern Hebrew, it is often referred to in the singular despite the -im ending that denotes plural masculine nouns in Hebrew.
all this means is the jews used the term 'elohim' which is plural, but only applied it to a singular God.
El Shadday
err not an e all-encompassing name for God but just a contexual one.
it's like if yo were drowning in water and God saved you...then you called God 'the God of the sea'.
the latter is interchangeable....the emphasis here shouldbe on the term EL.
just because pagans also used the word 'el' for their false gods, doesnt make the jewish God the same type of false God. what matters, is the actual theological foundation within that belief system. Eg, they understood that EL/elohim were references to the primordial power.
Jesus called God 'elah'.
the core beliefs are what matter..and in this case the core beliefs in islam are that there is a single ABSOLUTE God, who alone is Trancendent.
lastly, 'only a prophet'....yet he is called 'THE WORD OF ALLAH'...no other 'only a prophet' is given the name 'KALAM' (which is the arabic word for WORD/LOGOS)