Ive read the new testament many times over,
I have a clue.
Do me a favour though.. no copy paste material unless it's from the scripture.
I have to repeat this point
O you who believe! Be you helpers (in the Cause) of Allah as said 'Îsa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), to the Hawariyyun (the
disciples): "Who are my helpers (in the Cause) of Allah?" The Hawariyyun (the
disciples) said: "We are Allah's helpers" (i.e. we will strive in His Cause!). Then a group of the Children of Israel believed and a group disbelieved. So We gave power to those who believed against their enemies, and they became the victorious (uppermost).
(سورة الصف, As-Saff, Chapter
#61, Verse
#14)
Yet it was Pauline christianity that got the upper hand.
Paul did have a dispute with Peter and James but his arguments were stronger and made logical sense too.
The religion was supposed to go from Jew to gentile...
Gentiles weren't bound by the mosaic law. They were given an abridged version of the old noahide laws.
The issue was whether the Jewish Christians were to stick with kosher or were free from the law of Moses as Christians who were preaching to gentiles.
It made sense for them to adopt the new way.
So this makes sense
To thee We sent the Scripture in truth, confirming the scripture that came before it, and guarding it in safety: so judge between them by what Allah hath revealed, and follow not their vain desires, diverging from the Truth that hath come to thee. To each among you have we prescribed a law and an
open way. If Allah had so willed, He would have made you a single people, but (His plan is) to test you in what He hath given you: so strive as in a race in all virtues. The goal of you all is to Allah; it is He that will show you the truth of the matters in which ye dispute;
(سورة المائدة, Al-Maaida, Chapter
#5, Verse
#48)
This one is also slightly mistranslated
It isn't that they both (Jews and Christians together) had "a law and an open way"
It's that the Jews had a law and the Christians had an open way.
Paul likened the new Christians to the partriarchs Abraham, Isaac, Jacob etc. They were righteous by faith long before the law of Moses came
In fact my argument for Mohammad rests in that point
Ie
God saw fit to give the Israelites a law..after they had been righteous by faith previously. Paul himself says it's because the Israelites lost their true belief in Egypt. So after that they were given Moses and the new laws.
It stands to reason that the gentiles likewise would lose their faith just like the Israelites..and God would send a new law but this time a global one for all people.
In both cases it leads to Jesus to 'fulfill that law'.
This makes more sense and brings completion.
Paul was part f that transition from the law of Moses to the 'open way' of faith for Christianity as it was introduced to gentiles.
