How deceitful of you to post such a corrupt version of John 1:14. The verse does
NOT actually say "became" flesh; it says the Word was
MADE flesh.
John 1:1 In the Beginning was the Word (Truth - in Hebrew is Nazir), and the Truth was with
THE God (NOT with Lucifer/Satan the Devil), and
the Word WAS God.
John 1:14 And the Word was
MADE flesh (incarnated), and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only incarnated
of the Father) full of Grace and Truth (Nazir in Hebrew).
Do the above verses in any way claim that Jesus
IS God?
No.
IF John 1:1 is read
properly, i.e. honestly and with an open-mind, the term "Jesus" isn't in it at all, either directly or by inference.
Only when one
WRONGLY ASSUMES that they can substitute “Jesus” into
BOTH John 1:14
AND John 1:1 (when “Jesus” doesn't appear in either verse) for the term “the Word”, can one
misinterpret those two very simple and easy to understand verses.
Please see the following link for an example of the
false logic you're using to read something into John 1:1 which simply isn't there.
https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/tools/lp/Bo/LogicalFallacies/111/Illicit_Substitution_of_Identicals
An
illicit substitution is one of the many forms of non sequitur logical fallacies, i.e.
faulty deductions that simply
do not logically follow from the information at hand.
Bearing this in mind, please consider there are at least 4 different ways that God's Word is referred to, or defined as, in the Bible.
a) The Word of the "I AM" came to the Prophets/God's Messengers
by vision/dream (telepathically).
b) The Word of the "I AM" was
verbally spoken by the Prophets/God's Messengers.
c) The Word of the "I AM" was recorded
in writing by the Prophets/God's Messengers (including the Disciples and Apostles), in what we refer to as the Bible (the written Word of God).
d) The Word of the "I AM" was also
MADE into
a flesh and blood example for us (The Way -
John 14:6), in the form of the human+Being Jesus+Christ.
By substituting the four different forms in which the Word was delivered from God to us listed above, John 1:1 would read as follows:-
In [the] beginning was the vision/dream, and the vision/dream was with THE God, and the vision/dream was God.
In [the] beginning was the spoken Word, and the spoken Word was with THE God, and the spoken Word was God.
In [the] beginning was the Bible, and the Bible was with THE God, and God was the Bible.
In [the] beginning was Jesus, and Jesus was with THE God, and Jesus was God.
Hopefully the fundamental flaw in these types of
illicit substitutions is self-evident, but just in case it isn't, please consider the following
insurmountable difficulties in claiming Jesus is God:-
1) Clearly God was
NOT a vision, even if that vision came from Him. It was
the TRUTH of that vision that was, since the beginning, with God and was God, because God
IS the
TRUTH and, unlike satan and humans, God cannot lie.
2) Clearly God was
NOT a verbal message, even if that verbal message was His Word, being delivered by His Messengers. It was
the TRUTH contained within that verbal message that was, since the beginning, with God and was God, because God
IS the
TRUTH and, unlike satan and humans, God cannot lie.
3) Clearly God was
NOT a book, even if that book was the Bible. It was
the TRUTH contained within the Bible that was, since the beginning, with God and was God, because God
IS the
TRUTH and, unlike satan and humans, God cannot lie.
4) It therefore
LOGICALLY follows that God was
NOT Jesus, even if Jesus was the flesh and blood
example God gave us. It was
the TRUTH that Jesus spoke and did that was, since the beginning, with God and was God, because God
IS the
TRUTH and, unlike satan and humans, God cannot lie.
5) How could anyone be
WITH someone at the same time they were that someone? No one claims some part of them was “with them” (my head was with me) nor would anyone claim to be with themselves (I was with me), except in jest (clowning around).
6) There is also a tense problem with John 1:1 that is being ignored, which likewise proves the illicit substitution of “Jesus” for "the Word" in that verse simply does
NOT work. The last phrase of the verse is as follows:
“...and the Word
WAS God” (or “...Jesus
WAS God” – past tense).
IF Jesus actually
IS God, then
ALL of the verb tenses in John 1:1 should be present tense,
NOT past tense. But that is
NOT what it says, is it? "Jesus
WAS God", is clearly
PAST TENSE.
It seems noteworthy that the "tense blindness" is not only
misapplied in John 1:1, but in the other verse "Christians" routinely quote as evidence that Jesus allegedly claimed to be God: John 8:58 KJV (
John 8:49 King of kings' Bible).
Where using the illicit substitution in John 1:1 ignores the past tense reference ("Jesus
WAS God") that proves its error, John 8:58 KJV ignores the fact that the present tense form of "to be" is used because using the past tense form would indicate Christ (speaking through the mouth of Jesus - see
John 8:14,
John 17:5,
John 18:36) no longer existed (it's "I
am going to live forever",
NOT "I
was going to live forever", the latter of which would mean that is no longer going to happen).
7) And finally, to further illustrate how absurd this substitution idea really is, please consider how substituting both the pagan Babylonian/Roman “trinity” and the Son Jesus into John 1:1 would render that verse:-
John 1:1 In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with THE God, and the Word was God.
...would become...
John 1:1 In [the] beginning was the Son Jesus, and the Son Jesus was with THE Father, Son Jesus and the Holy Spirit, and the Son Jesus was the Father, Son Jesus and the Holy Spirit.
Which should leave no reasonable doubt in any rationally-minded human+Being that Jesus is
NOT God.
We would also need to believe these verses written by John supposedly contradict Christ telling us unequivocally
HUNDREDS of times that He is
NOT God.
John 17:3
And THIS is Life Eternal, that they might KNOW Thee the ONLY True God, AND Christ the Saviour, whom Thou hast SENT.
Who Jesus really
WAS, was explained in great detail
by Christ Himself when He was here in the body of Jesus. Jesus
was the
mortal human Son born of the virgin body of Mary, Who
WAS definitely
OF this world (and descended from the line of David). Hence His designation as “the Son of Man” (of, i.e. descended
FROM man).
Christ, which means “the Anointed One” (same as Messiah does in Hebrew or Mahdi does in Arabic)
IS the
Firstborn Son of God (
Rom. 8:29,
Col. 1:15,
Rev. 3:14), Who is an
IMMORTAL Spirit-Being and definitely is
NOT OF THIS WORLD (
John 8:14,
17:5,
18:36).
2000 years ago, when Christ incarnated Jesus (
John 1:14), They became the human+Being known as Jesus+Christ. The human body of Jesus is now long-gone. Which is why Christ prophesied that during His Second Coming, He (Christ) will be here in a
NEW BODY (from Joseph-Ephraim -
Gen. 49:10,
22-24) with a
NEW NAME (
Rev. 2:17,
3:12,
19:12).
We have the Word of
THE ONE TRUE GOD (the "I AM) on that (
Deut. 6:4,
Zech. 14:9,
Mark 12:29).
Do you really believe this is proof of anything except the
ignorance of those who were
falsely accusing Christ of claiming to be God (as you are doing)? They people were so insane they were trying to kill Jesus!
Matthew 26:63-65
26:63 But Jesus held his peace. And the High Priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the Living God, that thou tell us
whether thou be The Christ, the Son OF God.
26:64 Jesus saith unto him,
THOU hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of Man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the "Clouds" of heaven.
26:65 Then the High Priest tore his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.
Why would you believe the false accusations of these anti-Christ haters over Christ, Who clearly stated
HUNDREDS of times that He is
NOT God, but merely the Son
OF God (of - descended
FROM God, MADE/CREATED
BY God).
Isn't it time you stop clowning around and seriously start believing Christ instead of your
satanic misinterpretations of words Christ did not speak?
If you seriously believe Christ is God (or that Jesus was God), then please provide just
ONE verse where
Christ claimed to be God. You can't, because there are
NONE.