"your God Is No Different"

Lady

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Sorry but the name Yahusha does not exist. It takes you right back to the name Joshua and the different translations that derived from the name.

You can't find Yahusha in the Hebrew language or the strong's. It's simple words Christians put together to make up a name.

Any one can check for themselves. It just does not exist.
To get back to the info (ahem! :D) the transliteration of the name Joshua (Yehushua-notice the ending difference) was a corruption of the Hebrew after the Babylonian captivity.
Moses changed Husha's name to Yahusha. From there, however, it is mistransliterated, in the King James as well as in Strong's. I have posted more info on this in my thread dedicated to this topic. Please check there?

Azara/Ezra 3:2 shows that Yahusha/Joshua the son of Yahutzdak’s name was now written and pronounced as Yashua/Yeshua. Though the pronunciation and written characters of Yahusha(Joshua’s Hebrew name) changed to Yashua/Yeshua during captivity by men, his name was given inits pure form (YAHUSHA) when the prophesy was foretold in ZakarYah/Zachariah 6: NO PROPHESY OF THE MASHYACH EVER INCLUDED THE BABYLONIAN SPELLING OF Yashua/Yeshua. There is no reason for us to take the name Yashua/Yeshua and apply it to anything dealing with YAHUSHA.YAHUSHA (יהושע) vs. Yahshua (יהשוע)Some refer to the Jewish Yashua/Yeshua as Yah-shua. Yahshua is spelled yd ha shan uu ayn יהשוע.
 

Yahda

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To get back to the info (ahem! :D) the transliteration of the name Joshua (Yehushua-notice the ending difference) was a corruption of the Hebrew after the Babylonian captivity.
Moses changed Husha's name to Yahusha. From there, however, it is mistransliterated, in the King James as well as in Strong's. I have posted more info on this in my thread dedicated to this topic. Please check there?

Azara/Ezra 3:2 shows that Yahusha/Joshua the son of Yahutzdak’s name was now written and pronounced as Yashua/Yeshua. Though the pronunciation and written characters of Yahusha(Joshua’s Hebrew name) changed to Yashua/Yeshua during captivity by men, his name was given inits pure form (YAHUSHA) when the prophesy was foretold in ZakarYah/Zachariah 6: NO PROPHESY OF THE MASHYACH EVER INCLUDED THE BABYLONIAN SPELLING OF Yashua/Yeshua. There is no reason for us to take the name Yashua/Yeshua and apply it to anything dealing with YAHUSHA.YAHUSHA (יהושע) vs. Yahshua (יהשוע)Some refer to the Jewish Yashua/Yeshua as Yah-shua. Yahshua is spelled yd ha shan uu ayn יהשוע.

No matter how you spell it ALL the translations lead back to Joshua and the name Yahusha does not exist.

Quick searches confirm. It's a name Christians compiled together. I would also say that your post is a prime example of this compilation.

When you research it, it even tells you that the name didn't exist until a certain time period.
 

Lady

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No matter how you spell it ALL the translations lead back to Joshua and the name Yahusha does not exist.

Quick searches confirm. It's a name Christians compiled together. I would also say that your post is a prime example of this compilation.

When you research it, it even tells you that the name didn't exist until a certain time period.
Please discuss on the other thread....please? I don't want to keep bringing my info back over to here!
 

Yahda

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Please discuss on the other thread....please? I don't want to keep bringing my info back over to here!
There's really not anything else to be said. Anyone can look it up, see and decide for themselves.
 

elsbet's cat ^. .^

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The word "Allah" just means "God" in Arabic.
The word "Yahweh" just means God in Hebrew.
Eloah or el means god in Hebrew.
Also, Elohim (or elohim which is plural: gods).

Yahweh is the proper name of God in Hebrew. (Yhvh)

Jesus of Nazareth is the name and title of a person and does not translate into a meaning. The closest thing to "Allah" or "Yahweh" in the Bible would be God the Father.
Jesus-> Yhvh + yasha (to deliver).
His title is the Christ.

"Jesus Christ" is properly "Jesus the Christ."
"Jesus" (2424 /Iēsoús) is His human name, as the incarnate, eternal Son of God – the Christ, the divine Messiah (the second Person of the holy Trinity).
(Mt 1:21,25, see also Lk 1:31)
Christ (His title) means "the Anointed One"
(the eternal pre-incarnate, Logos, Jn 1:1-18).

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Daze

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Eloah or el means god in Hebrew.
Also, Elohim (or elohim which is plural: gods).

Yahweh is the proper name of God in Hebrew. (Yhvh)


Jesus-> Yhvh + yasha (to deliver).
His title is the Christ.



Christ (His title) means "the Anointed One"
(the eternal pre-incarnate, Logos, Jn 1:1-18).

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What's interesting is Jesus spoke Aramaic. The Bible was recorded in Greek. Today most people, likely including you, can only access it with English. Which begs the question... what does Hebrew have to do with anything?

The letter J isn't even present in Hebrew. Did you know this? I mean 300,000,000 people speak Arabic, millions of Christians are among them. While every one of them calls god Allah. Because it's literally the Arabic word for God.

It is no different from a Mexican Christian calling his god Dios.

Here's Allah's name ( الله ) next to a cross, this is not a Muslim.

1709009262566.png

Here is an example of it using images.

1709010350181.png


By all means, go find an Arabic-speaking Christian. It is not hard to do online.
 

A Freeman

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And Who is it that anointed and sent "the Anointed One" to deliver His Message?

God. Our heavenly Father. YHWH; the "I AM".

John 5:30-31
5:30 I can of mine own self do NOTHING: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the Will of the Father WHICH HATH SENT ME.
5:31 If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.

Any rationally-minded individual should immediately recognize that our ALL-POWERFUL GOD can NEVER be limited (Num. 23:19). Is God sent on errands? If so, by whose command? And how could God -- bearing witness that He is our ALL-POWERFUL GOD -- NOT BE TRUE?

John 13:16-17
13:16 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than He that sent him.
13:17 If ye KNOW these things, happy are ye if ye DO them.

John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come [again] unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.

How can Satan con so many into believing the exact opposite of what Christ said and taught while Christ was here, incarnated inside of Jesus?

Jesus NEVER claimed to be The Most High God. Anything and everything Christ has was GIVEN to him by his God and Father, including his title as "the Anointed One", i.e. "the One Whom God anointed".
 

A Freeman

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Matthew 28:18 And Jesus came and spoke unto them, saying, All power is GIVEN unto me in heaven and in earth.

Luke 1:31-33
1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS (Saviour).
1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of The Highest: and the Lord God his Father shall GIVE unto him the Throne of David:
1:33 And he shall reign over the "House of Jacob/Israel" for ever; and of his Kingdom there shall be no end.

John 5:26-27
5:26 For as the Father hath Life in Himself; so hath He GIVEN to the Son to have Life in himself;
5:27 And hath GIVEN him authority to execute Judgment also, because he is the Son of Man (Enoch 68:39).

How could The Most High God -- Who created EVERYONE and EVERYTHING, including His Firstborn/Eldest Son (Christ) -- be given anything He doesn't already have?
 

elsbet's cat ^. .^

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What's interesting is Jesus spoke Aramaic. The Bible was recorded in Greek.
He did.
The Septuagint (Old Testament) was written in Greek, yes; and it was translated from Hebrew. The Peshitta was translated from Aramaic and remains accessible today.

Today most people, likely including you, can only access it with English. Which begs the question... what does Hebrew have to do with anything?
Likely including me, because... ?
If you had read my post yesterday, you would know better -- but you didn't. Yet you still replied. As expected. -.-

I struggle with capitals in modern Greek.
I can read Koine, but I still have to check the meaning for almost everything. I aim for progress... not perfection. And... if you're still reading at this point, I am aware of shortcomings in the text, due to the influence + misinterpretations of people like Augustine the of Hippo: the original navel-gazer + honorary Catholic "saint" -- but he's one of a thousand others. I cannot read Hebrew, which I also told you... however, I know where the concordance is, as well as the lexicon, and I use them.

The letter J isn't even present in Hebrew. Did you know this? I mean 300,000,000 people speak Arabic, millions of Christians are among them. While every one of them calls god Allah. Because it's literally the Arabic word for God.
Yep... the god.
And yes, I'm aware Hebrew has no "J" and the letter יה (hay) is used in its place -> יהושע (Joshua). Likewise, the letter "I" is used in place of the letter "J" in Greek -> Ἰησοῦς (Jesus). So what.

In Hebrew, god is still El/el (context)... which isn't a proper name. The term is used for spiritual beings in general. In Arabic (Quran), I think you use different terms like jinn for demons and malāk (iirc, "king" in Hebrew; very interesting + tbh, worthy of separate convo) for angels. Note: OT Hebrew text also uses malak as a general term for angels or messengers.
And the Angel of LORD JEHOVAH found her at a spring of waters in the wilderness in the road of Gadar. Gen. 16:7
It is no different from a Mexican Christian calling his god Dios.
Dios mio... my God.
That one, I know. Nevertheless, Yahweh or Jehovah would still be different because it's a proper name.

Here's Allah's name ( الله ) next to a cross, this is not a Muslim.
View attachment 102076
Here is an example of it using images.
View attachment 102077
By all means, go find an Arabic-speaking Christian. It is not hard to do online.
Ιεχώβα - Jehovah in Greek
But in the Septuagint (Koine), it's translated as Κύριος ὁ Θεὸς -> Kyrios Theos: Lord God.

In Hebrew, it reads יְהוָ֔ה אֵ֥ל -> Yahweh God.
He has a name and it isn't "Lord."
That is something I have no problem conceding-- imo, it was done intentionally; same for modern English translations. It leads to misconceptions and arguments, just like the one you started here. Just saying.
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