What does the Koran actually say about prayer?

meximonk

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A Freeman:
"God, Who is a Spirit-Being (John 4:24) and NOT human (Num 23:19), and therefore could NEVER have a human son, exactly as it says in the Koran (Quran). So there is absolutely disagreement between the Bible and the Koran on this issue IF it is properly understood."

"God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?"
-Numbers 23:19 (KJV)
If I understand you properly, you're taking this out of context. It's saying that God isn't like man. "God is not a man, that he should lie..." You clearly don't understand the old English here. Reading it in Hebrew, the language it was actually written in, results in even further clarity. Regardless, it never says he can't be a man. (YOU say that.) Also, God doesn't need to repent like men because He's never sinned.

"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth."
-John 4:24 (KJV)
So God the Father is a Spirit. So what?
 






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A Freeman

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A Freeman:
"God, Who is a Spirit-Being (John 4:24) and NOT human (Num 23:19), and therefore could NEVER have a human son, exactly as it says in the Koran (Quran). So there is absolutely disagreement between the Bible and the Koran on this issue IF it is properly understood."

"God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?"
-Numbers 23:19 (KJV)
If I understand you properly, you're taking this out of context.
Nothing has been taken out of context. God is a Spirit-Being, and can NEVER be human, nor the son of a human ("Son of Man"), exactly as it says.

IF God were to be subjected to human limitations, He would immediately cease to be ALL-POWERFUL. God is all-powerful (omnipotent), all-knowing (omniscient), and present everywhere (omnipresent) at ALL TIMES.

Please think about that very carefully. The only way that God can be omnipresent is if He is everything (the limitless universe) that we live inside of, which would then cease to exist should God become human.

It's saying that God isn't like man. "God is not a man, that he should lie..."
But it doesn't say that God isn't "like" a man, does it?

You clearly don't understand the old English here. Reading it in Hebrew, the language it was actually written in, results in even further clarity.
The word "Satan" is Hebrew and means "the Opposer" (God's Adversary). Whenever Father (God) tells us the Truth, Satan comes along and tries to con us into believing the opposite, i.e. to believe that lies are truth and that the truth is a lie.

Numbers 23:19 is written plainly, and means exactly what it says, whether it is in English or in Hebrew. The word "like" is not to be found in either the Hebrew or the English translation from Hebrew. Nor is it implied. Nor can it be assumed. Father (God) says exactly what He means and He means exactly what He says.

Regardless, it never says he can't be a man. (YOU say that.)
Except that is EXACTLY what it says. You even quoted it: "God is NOT a man". The verse goes one step further to state "neither the son of man" to make it doubly clear it's IMPOSSIBLE for our ALL-POWERFUL GOD to be subjected to human limitation, even if only for a moment. It's YOU who are falsely claiming it doesn't say what it actually does say, without any evidence. Read what it actually says.

Also, God doesn't need to repent like men because He's never sinned.

"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth."
-John 4:24 (KJV)
So God the Father is a Spirit. So what?
If you don't understand the difference between a Spirit-Being (Soul/Jinn) and a human (flesh), then how can you correctly understand ANYTHING in Scripture? Both the Bible and the Koran (Quran) were written for spiritual-Beings, NOT for humans.

John 3:3-8
3:3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born from above, he cannot SEE The Kingdom of God.
3:4 Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? Can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water (human) and then is born (later) from above as his spirit-"Being" (his REAL self which is NOT human), he can NOT enter into The Kingdom of God (Who is a Spirit-"Being").
3:6 That which is born of the flesh is human; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit (a spirit-"Being") - (a human+Being).
3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
3:8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and where it goeth: so is every one that is BORN OF THE SPIRIT.

If it is your intention to try to argue the pagan "trinity" or to falsely claim that Jesus was/is God, there are other threads that address that unscriptural viewpoint. Please see one such example at the link below.

The Trinity Delusion
https://vigilantcitizenforums.com/threads/the-trinity-delusion.8028/#post-342254

Peace be upon you.
 






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friend

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As you've stated, there is ONE mention of the word "Bakkah" in the Koran (Quran) and ONE mention of the word "Makkah" or "Makka", neither of which are "Mecca"
Seriously?

The real name of Japan in Japanese is Nippon/Nihon but english speakers call it Japan.

likewise the city of Makkah is called Mecca by English speakers.
 






shankara

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Seriously?

The real name of Japan in Japanese is Nippon/Nihon but english speakers call it Japan.

likewise the city of Makkah is called Mecca by English speakers.
According to these guys English is some kind of divine language full of mysteries. Like they believe that the word "democracy" comes from "demon" and "crazy" rather than from the Greek "dēmokratia". Among other things. Oh and that when Jesus said to the good thief "tonight you will be with me in paradise" this means he will be in a "life review", their evidence being that the Bible uses the word "paradise" which sounds like two Latin words "para dice" which mean "to be told". So basically that the word used in a translation sounds like a word in a language the original text wasn't written in and that signifies the actual meaning of the text. Funnily enough they tell others that they aren't being logical due to "ego" but haven't quite managed to perform the same kind of analysis of their own belief.

Anyway, I'm sure that anyone who is interested in actual etymology and the origins of words - which is a fascinating subject giving a great deal of insight into things, Indo-European languages coming from the same family as Sanskrit and using many similar or same words - makes a facepalm gesture when confronted with their "delusions of reference" as a psychologist would call it.
 






A Freeman

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For any genuinely interested in the truth, please see the link below to the "Ask a Muslim" website, where they are claiming that both "Bakkah" in Sura 3:96 and "Makkah" in Sura 48:24 were derived from the Hebrew word "Baca" in the Bible. They then conclude all three must mean "Mecca" without any basis for their conclusions.


Again, the word "baca" in Hebrew means "tears". So by their own admission, both "bakkah" and "makkah" were originally "baca" (or in Arabic "baka"), which has absolutely NOTHING to do with "Mecca". Again, the Valley of Baca was the Valley of TEARS that Abraham and Isaac traveled through to get to Mt. Moriah, where by Abraham became a "friend of God" by his willingness to place no one above God (not even his own miracle son, Isaac).

A forum (Discover True Islam) where "Muslims" are arguing over what "Makkah" means. It was forwarded that translated into English it means "destruction" rather than "Mecca":

Another website admitting that nowhere in the Koran does it instruct us to pray towards Mecca:

Several well-documented articles that indicate according to historical records and archaelogy of Arabia, Mecca Did Not Exist Before the 4th century A.D (much like the town of Nazareth):

How could Mecca be "the mother of cities" when there were other, well-documented cities THOUSANDS of years before Mecca?

How much more obvious does it need to be that there is no mention, directly or indirectly in the Koran (Quran) to the pagan, idolatrous city of Mecca, that fought AGAINST Muhammad (peace be upon him)?

There is not one single verse in the Koran (Quran) that instructs anyone to pray five times a day.
There is not one single verse in the Koran (Quran) that instruct anyone to pray facing Mecca.
There is not one single verse in the Koran (Quran) that instruct anyone to pray in public. In fact, that practice is repeatedly CONDEMNED in the Koran (see Sura 4:142, 7:55, 33:33).
There is not one single verse in the Koran (Quran) that instruct anyone to go to a mosque. In fact, that practice is repeatedly CONDEMNED in the Koran (see Sura 4:142, 7:55, 9:107-111, 33:33).
And truthfully, there is not one single reference in the Holy Koran (Quran) to the city of Mecca by name nor by implication. ALL references, in the Holy Koran, to the City of Peace refer to Jerusalem NOT to Mecca. The word Mecca does not mean the City of Peace, the word Jerusalem DOES mean City of Peace in Hebrew.

God didn't provide us with multiple Holy Places here on Earth. The Holy Place is, and always has been, Mt. Moriah, near Jerusalem, where Abraham sacrificed his miracle son ISAAC , exactly as it says in the Bible and in the original, TRUE Koran.

There is a common misconception (another false teaching really) among adherents to the organized religion known as "Islam" that all of the writings within the Koran (Quran) have been perfectly preserved and that the Bible has been "corrupted", even though the Koran itself plainly states that is NOT the case (Sura 15:9-10, Sura 32:23).

ALL Scripture has built-in error correction, making it impossible for it to be corrupted. This error correction is described in both The Law and in the Book of Enoch (Idris), which should explain why evil men removed that Book from the Bible (to hide their evil deeds), even though there are references to Enoch/Idris found throughout the Bible and Koran which tell us that Enoch was the first prophet and the only one of us that was ever "translated".

Those very simple, built-in error corrections are as follows:

1) EVERYTHING in Scripture which is a life or death matter (including and especially our spiritual life or death) MUST have multiple witnesses (Num. 35:30, Deut. 17:6, Deut. 19:15) in accordance with The Law (God's Law, found only in the first five books of the Bible, namely Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy, which were GIVEN to Moses on Mt. Horeb in Sinai); and

2) EVERYTHING in Scripture MUST agree (Enoch 104:8-11).

Numbers 35:30 Whoso killeth any person, the murderer shall be put to death by the mouth of witnesses: but one witness shall not testify against any person [to cause him] to die.

Deuteronomy 17:6 At the mouth of two witnesses, or three witnesses, shall he that is worthy of death be put to death; [but] at the mouth of one witness he shall not be put to death.

Deuteronomy 19:15 One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter be established.

Deuteronomy 31:24-26
31:24 And it came to pass, when Moses had made an end of writing the words of this Law in a Book, until they were finished,
31:25 That Moses commanded the Levites, which bare The Ark of The Covenant of the "I AM", saying,
31:26 Take this Book of The Law, and put it in the side of The Ark of The Covenant of the "I AM" your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee.


THE INCORRECT WRITING OF GOD'S WORDS PROPHESIED:-


Enoch 104:8 They shall speak evil things; they shall utter falsehood (ch. 97:2); create a great creation (false religions and religious traditions and technology); and compose books of their own words (books of man-made legislation, rules, etc.; books of the religious traditions of their fathers; novels; etc.; etc.; etc. - ch. 68:13).

See also 2 Thess. 2:7-12, Sura 6:112-115, Sura 22:52-55 , Sura 25:31

2 Thessalonians 2:7-12
2:7 For the mystery (Rev. 17:5) of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth [will let], until he be taken out of the way.
2:8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the [Sword of the] Spirit from his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness [of the enlightening] of his coming:
2:9 [Even the Wicked], whose coming is the work of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,
2:10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of The Truth, that they might be saved.
2:11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:
2:12 That they all might be damned who believed not The Truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.

Sura 6:112-115
6:112. Likewise We made for every Messenger an enemy,- evil ones among men and Beings (human+beings), inspiring each other with flowery discourses by way of deception. If thy Lord had so planned, they would not have done it: so leave them and their inventions alone.
6:113. To such (deceit) let the hearts of those incline, who have no faith in the Hereafter: let them delight in it, and let them earn from it what they may.
6:114. Say: "Shall I seek for judge other than "I AM"? - when He it is Who hath sent unto you The Book (Bible), explained in detail." They, to whom We have given The Book, know full well, that it hath been sent down from thy Lord in truth. NEVER be then one of those who doubt (Sura 3:1-3, 15:9, 32:23).
6:115. The Word of thy Lord doth find its FULFILLMENT in TRUTH and in JUSTICE: none can change His Words: for He is the One who heareth and knoweth all.

Sura 22:52-55
22:52. Never did We send an Apostle or a Prophet before thee, but, when he framed a desire, Satan threw some (vanity) into his desire: but "I AM" will cancel anything (vain) that Satan throws in, and "I AM" WILL CONFIRM (AND ESTABLISH) HIS SIGNS (Sura 32:23): for "I AM" is full of Knowledge and Wisdom:
22:53. THAT HE MAY MAKE THE SUGGESTIONS THROWN IN BY SATAN, BUT A TRIAL FOR THOSE IN WHOSE HEARTS IS A DISEASE AND WHO ARE HARDENED OF HEART: verily the wrong-doers are in a schism far (from the Truth):
22:54. And that those on whom Knowledge has been bestowed may learn that the (Koran) is the Truth from thy Lord, and that they may believe therein, and their hearts may be made humbly (open) to it: for verily "I AM" is the Guide, of those who believe, to The Straight Way (Matthew 7:13-14, John 14:6, Sura 3:55).
22:55. Those who reject Faith will not cease to be in doubt concerning (Revelation) until The Hour (of Judgment) comes suddenly upon them, or there comes to them the Penalty of a Day of Disaster.

Sura 25:31. Thus have We made for every Prophet an enemy among the sinners: but enough is thy Lord to guide and to help.


HOW TO RECOGNISE AND CORRECT THE MISTAKES:-

But when they shall write correctly all My words in their own languages,

Enoch 104:9-11
104:9 They (My words) shall neither change nor diminish (Deut. 4:2, 12:32, Matt. 5:17-19, Mark 13:31); but when all shall be written correctly; ALL, which from the first I have uttered concerning them SHALL CONCUR (John 10:35; Sura 15:9-10).
104:10 Another secret also I point out. To the righteous and the wise shall be given Books of joy, of integrity, and of great Wisdom. To them shall Books be given (Rev. 10:7-10, Rev. 2:17), in which they shall believe (and Live by);
104:11 And in which they shall rejoice. And all the righteous shall be rewarded, who from these (Books) shall acquire the Knowledge of The Straight Way (Matt. 7:13-14, John 14:6, Rev. 14:1-4, Sura 6:153-161).

This is how and why ANY additions or alterations made to the Bible or to the Koran stick out like a sore thumb, and how we can know when something has been removed. An example of recognizing something has been wrongfully removed is the Book of Enoch itself. Enoch (Idris) is mentioned in The Law (Old Covenant - Gen. 5:22-24, Sol. 4:10, Wis. 44:16) and in the New Covenant (Heb. 11:5) and in the Koran (Sura 19:56-57), and he stands out as being the only one to ever be "translated". If Father (God) raised Enoch to such a lofty station, shouldn't the Book that Enoch was given by Father be part of Father's Word? Doesn't ANY of Father's Word prove itself to be true?

Error correction: Sura 39:23 (further confirmation that all Scripture must be consistent with itself).

Sura 39:23. "I AM" has revealed (from time to time) the most beautiful Message in the form of a Book, CONSISTENT WITH ITSELF, (yet) repeating (its teaching in various aspects): the skins of those who fear their Lord tremble thereat; then their skins and their hearts do soften to the celebration of "I AM"'s praises (Prov. 1:7; 9:10). Such is the Guidance from "I AM": He guides therewith whom He pleases, but such as "I AM" leaves to stray, can have none to guide.

Why the Koran was sent in Arabic: Sura 41:44 (because Mohammad was an Arab – same reason the Old Covenant was originally in Hebrew and the New Testament was originally in Greek). The Koran is a message and a warning FOR ALL MANKIND (not just Arabic-speaking people), as it repeatedly states (Sura 3:1-3, 4:79, 4:170, 10:2, 14:1, 14:44, 14:52, 17:89, 18:54, 21:109, 22:78, 29:43-44, 39:41, 68:51, 74:31-38).

See also Sura 14:4, 16:36

Several obvious alterations made to the Koran: Sura 2:125 and Sura 2:127, where Ishmael was wrongly substituted for Isaac by the Roman Catholic Meccans. Sura 3:96, where "Bakkah" was substituted for "Baka", and Sura 48:24, where "Makkah" was intentionally mistranslated.

Several obvious alterations to the New Covenant: Matt. 28:19 and 1 John 5:7, where "trinitarian" wording was added hundreds and hundreds of years later by the Roman Catholic church, which isn't present in the original manuscripts. See also the story of the adulterous woman in John 8 in some translations (including the KJV), which was also wrongly added.
 






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