Was Paul A False Apostle And Were His Writings Correct?

JoChris

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you don't seem to get this
a good degree of faith comes from the theoretical pov ie what you equate to believing n the "Word of God"
this type of faith comes through the truth of the logical aspect of religion ie knowing the difference between right/wrong, knowing that the path of God leads to success and the opposite ie hedonism leads to destruction etc.

however all that faith and knowledge has to then evoke a spiritual/emotional response in the heart
ie certainty produces trust and love...
and it is these qualities in the heart that lead to spiritual knowledge ie Gnosis.

finally the experience of God has to be a combination of both sides ie one side deals with the Transcendence of God and the other with His immanence.

the problem here is the christians like you are not understanding that the new testament terms were products of the state of gnosis...and refer to the Immanent aspect of God, in Jesus.
It's nearly dinner time here.
True spiritual gnosis - the spiritually blind being able to see - will result in faith in Jesus Christ, God made flesh.
And that comes through God's hand on the believer - bringing the spiritually dead to spiritual life - not human effort to feel at one with God.
 
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It's nearly dinner time here.
True spiritual gnosis - the spiritually blind being able to see - will result in faith in Jesus Christ, God made flesh.
And that comes through God's hand on the believer - bringing the spiritually dead to spiritual life - not human effort to feel at one with God.
truth has to be balanced between the 2 ie God is both the Transcendent and the Immanent
2 aspects
left and right
like in kabballah's tree of life
the left side deals with logic ie the brain, the right side deals with emotions ie the heart

hence you get
The Word was WITH GOD
and
The Word IS God

these are 2 statements, one is logical truth and the other is the mystical truth
the 2 have to be combined to reach the ultimate truth ie by understanding how both statements are true from different perspectives...
but you should never confuse the 2 for each other
don't take a mystical statement and make it into a logical truth...
Moses heard God in the burnish bush, the israelites didn't start worshipping bushes and fire.
 

JoChris

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truth has to be balanced between the 2 ie God is both the Transcendent and the Immanent
2 aspects
left and right
like in kabballah's tree of life
the left side deals with logic ie the brain, the right side deals with emotions ie the heart

hence you get
The Word was WITH GOD
and
The Word IS God

these are 2 statements, one is logical truth and the other is the mystical truth
the 2 have to be combined to reach the ultimate truth ie by understanding how both statements are true from different perspectives...
but you should never confuse the 2 for each other
don't take a mystical statement and make it into a logical truth...
Moses heard God in the burnish bush, the israelites didn't start worshipping bushes and fire.
Christians have no problem seeing both logical truth and mystical truth in Jesus Christ.
 
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2) No, the demiurge belief was very very weak.
The muslim sufis and the vedanta hindus have the best explanations on these matters. The 2 types of maya are far better explanations that make sense. The demiurge made no sense.
Ah, okay, you've got me convinced.

3) In no way shape or form is Jesus 'divinity', your scripture is very clear.
if God is the Gardener......how is the Vine itself, GOD?
makes no sense
Your objection is ridiculous. One True vine, one True account. The one true account is AspiringSoul, AspiringSoul is YOU. Your reaction: "How is my account ME? Doesn't make any sense."

the trinitarian doctrine holds that the Son is co-equal with the Father in Godhead...
yet Jesus said "the son can do nothing on his own"
"I am going to the Father; for he is greater than I."
in all instances, everything the Son does, is the Father acting THROUGH the Son.
hence i use the prism analogy
For the third time, the prism would be the body of Jesus, NOT the Christ / Logos. The Christ/Logos exists of the same light as God, because it is God. The prism is not the light, hence not God, hence not the Christ/Logos. Where's the hypostatic union in your analogy? It's nowhere to be found.

Plus, your account can do nothing on its own / can do nothing without YOU. YOU are greater than your account. Everything your account does is YOU acting through your account so others - who don't know you - get to know you. The fact that your account can do nothing without YOU is further proof that it IS YOU, just as Jesus (the man/account) unable to do anything without God is further proof that He IS GOD.

similarly the trinitarian doctrine holds the the holy spirit is co-equal with the Son and the Father, in Godhead

yet Jesus said
He will not speak on his own authority, but he will speak of what he hears and will tell you of things to come.
this clearly suggests the holy spirit cannot be co-equal with the Son or the Father...

so if i have a problem with the trinitarian doctrine i have a pretty fair argument.
Pff, you have one body, one mind, one soul. They are all YOU, they are not three different YOUS since that would imply three bodies, three minds, three souls. Your body will act and speak only because of what it is instructed to do by your mind. "Your body cannot be co-equal with your mind" would be wrongly interpreting co-equal. They all identify as YOU, without being exactly the same. And now I'm merely applying the reasoning to a finite and physical being (YOU), not to an infinite, metaphysical being (God). But if one cannot deal with abstractions of unimaginable ideas, there's no point in trying to understand.

the best explanations of the sayings of Jesus, comes from the sufis who use God's immanence to explain the manifestation of God from the pov of Gnosis.
Clearly not, since you, as an adherent, have completely removed Jesus' hypostasis from the equation, which is not something gnostics (those without whom your Sufis would have never encountered "gnosis") would have approved.

Ive explained in various ways to the christians on here that 'by gnosis im not talking about the gnostic sect' and yet in the single stroke they'll often quote me directly and tell me 'i don't want to read your GNOSTIC views'.
There's no "gnostic sect". There were dozens of them over the span of more than a millenium. Among a variety of gnostic sects there were teachings as contradictory as black and white (for instance Ophites who worshipped the serpent and Valentinians who said the serpent was evil incarnate). Gnosis was an intrinsic part of Christian doctrine before the proto-orthodox established their "true" religion in Rome by expelling partisan labelled "heterodox" teachings. Gnosis is an essential part of Christian teachings, as even Todd (a Judaized ergo antignostic Christian) admitted.

you're talking to probably the only muslim who believes in the crucifixion/death/resurrection

...

hence your perspective of islam's position on this is blindsided by these modern contexts.
To be clear, are you saying Islam's opposition to the three pillars of Christianity (deity, death, and resurrection of Christ) are modern positions and have nothing to do with 7th century Islam?
 
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I disagree. Their is wordly wisdom and godly wisdom. Yes wisdom can come from God, but it's not the same thing as the Word of God or inspiriation of the Spirit.
So Peter praised Paul because he was given "worldly wisdom"?
 
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You've essentially said that someone "in Christ" will not sin at all. Which going by every christian I've ever come across, is undoubtedly incorrect. You'll see many christians here say they're "in christ" but how many will say they wont lie EVER again
So by that standard we should just believe those who say they are "in Christ" to actually be "in Christ"? They're just claims.

Well for me, I havent read ONE good explanation as to why Jesus came and followed the same pattern of belief system as his ancestors (the law of Moses) yet actually wanted his followers to do something else. And not only that, but he doesnt even make it explicitly clear that he wants his followers to do something else. Instead he tells us that those that do as he did and teach others to do as he did are called great in heaven while those who do not do as he did and teach others to likewise not do so are called the least.
What's the law of Moses? Does it include forgetting to add salt on an animal sacrifice and no entry in the church of the Lord for not having intact testicles? Or shall we stick with the Ten Commandments?

Yes the bolded/underlined is true. And of course, Jesus was from this very same group of people following the very same Torah. So what exactly from HIS WORDS do you have that suggests that other people should not do the same? And you may not "know" what Jesus meant when he said law, but the Israelites surely did. Just as christians who believe Mary was a literal virgin may not know that if she was called Joseph's wife BEFORE she had Jesus, then to the Hebrews, that means she was not a virgin sexually since marriage began at sex and not with a priest in a church like it does in modern times. So how the Israelites viewed the "law" is probably how you should view the context of him saying "obey the law" to Israelites.
So we'll include the saltless animal sacrifices and the handicapped testicles in the Law, yes?

In the end, if I see his actions as being obedient to the law and dont see him saying to NOT follow it, what reason do I actually have for NOT following it if Im claiming to follow this guy who perfected the faith Im trying to hold?
Okay, so "Jesus followed the Law". How do you know that? Where did Jesus perform animal sacrifice or any sacrifice at all in the Temple for instance, which was a pretty common and fundamental law for Israelites?
 
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Theres a difference between the originals and the oldest texts we have.

Its very doubtful that Hebrews were writing in perfect Greek. Especially when two of which were called unlearned by Paul...
I think I might have better spelling in English than my mother tongue because it's the common language when you engage online, just as Greek was the common oral and written language during the time of Christ while Hebrew had been 1) steadily replaced by Aramaic since 800BC and 2) relegated to a liturgic language only used by Jewish clergy.

Pretty confident that both the oldest scriptures we have as well as the original ones were written in Greek. Scholars see no traces of the Greek scriptures being translations at all, nor in its language, nor in any references from authors or collectors that the scriptures were a translation, nor any references to the existence of a Hebrew or Aramaic scripture.
 

Serveto

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There's no "gnostic sect". There were dozens of them over the span of more than a millenium. Among a variety of gnostic sects there were teachings as contradictory as black and white (for instance Ophites who worshipped the serpent and Valentinians who said the serpent was evil incarnate). Gnosis was an intrinsic part of Christian doctrine before the proto-orthodox established their "true" religion in Rome by expelling partisan labelled "heterodox" teachings.
This I accept as historically accurate. Which leads me to this ...
So Peter praised Paul because he was given "worldly wisdom"?
And this leads me to wonder. How does one know that, during the same proto-orthodox period in which the "true" (i.e., Pauline) religion was being established in Rome, the epistles attributed to Peter were not redacted by the then ascendant partisans of Paul? If the then-emerging institutional Church could suppress and eliminate Gnostic writings, could they not also redact such an existing, otherwise "orthodox" epistle as that attributed to Peter and add Peter's commendation of Paul? To me, and though I am not saying that they did, which I could not prove, it seems plausible that they could have.
 
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@Daciple

Same question as Koncrete: What is the Law of Moses? The Ten Commandments or the entire collection of 613 mitzvah? Most of your rebuttal is based on assuming I equate the Ten Commandments to the law of the Devil, which I don't. I agree that the Law (ie. the Ten Commandments) exposed sin, as Paul claimed.

"If I broke my hypothetical contract it wouldnt be fulfilled would it? It would be destroyed and I would be culpable for whatever penalty would be due me for breaking the contract."

Because you do not owe your sin / debt to the debtor who will fulfill the contract in your stead, but to someone else. God's grace / pardon makes the fulfillment of that contract/your debt/sin redundant. He does not have to fulfill your contract so your debt to Him is paid, because He can simply forgive you if you repent (sincerely). It would make alot more sense if God did what He did (sacrifice Himself) to repay the debt you owed to someone else. I'll leave it to you who that someone else is, but realise that you have merchants in the spiritual world too. They deal in souls and sin is their currency.

Re Moses and Jesus: Read the Letter to Flora by Ptolemy for a better understanding of my pov. Not all that is ascribed as Mosaic Law is inspired by God, or even Moses.

Not gonna go into detail for the remainder since it's too long. Most of it you can put in the perspective of Jesus' mission to convert the Jews rather than Jesus being the apotheosis of Judaism and it will still stand. Try it.
 
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This I accept as historically accurate. Which leads me to this ...

And this leads me to wonder. How does one know that, during the same proto-orthodox period in which the "true" (i.e., Pauline) religion was being established in Rome, the epistles attributed to Peter were not redacted by the then ascendant partisans of Paul? If the then-emerging institutional Church could suppress and eliminate Gnostic writings, could they not also redact such an existing, otherwise "orthodox" epistle as that attributed to Peter and add Peter's commendation of Paul? To me, and though I am not saying that they did, which I could not prove, it seems plausible that they could have.
Depends to what extent you think the Orthodox church was Pauline. If I'm not mistaking it were Marcionists who were called Pauline as opposed to Roman Christianity which could better be understood as Petrine imo and according to FC Bauer. Other than that, it remains a "could have" rather than "did have" for me as well. Don't think the redaction existed in the tampering of scripture as much as it existed in the rejection or removal of entire manuscripts.
 

Paranoia Daily

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Yet you still cling to the concept that God would have those he loves spend eternity suffering?
Well if thats the case why was Hell created? If no eternal suffering was intended then why threaten those who do comply with the turn or burn philosophy with it? There is suffering all over the world, now weather any sight unseen deity is or is not the cause I do not know. But I do know that if this God was all loving and caring millions of kids through out the world would not be starving to death right now.
 
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You tell me where Jesus HIMSELF said that "i am God", "worship me", "i am here to die for your sins"
Jesus would not say "I am God" because you have to come to that conclusion yourself, it should not be revealed by flesh and blood.


Jesus, the man, would not say "worship me" because simple minds might interpret it as man-worship, which isn't the point.

Matthew 26:28. For this is my blood of the new testament, which shall be shed for many unto remission of sins.

His appearance is from hadith.
I never asked for hadith.
 

Serveto

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Depends to what extent you think the Orthodox church was Pauline. If I'm not mistaking it were Marcionists who were called Pauline as opposed to Roman Christianity which could better be understood as Petrine imo and according to FC Bauer. Other than that, it remains a "could have" rather than "did have" for me as well. Don't think the redaction existed in the tampering of scripture as much as it existed in the rejection or removal of entire manuscripts.
My by no means complete reading of the Church Fathers, both ante- and post-Nicene, sees them quoting and elaborating upon the doctrines largely taught by St. Paul. Given that a preponderance of New Testament canonical books are Pauline in both origin and influence, including many epistles, St. Luke's Gospel and the Acts, that is not surprising. I see the then-emerging church as thus largely Pauline, though it was upon the rock of Peter, as it is written, that Christ founded his church (and upon which the Roman Catholic Church reputedly stakes its claim).

To my view, it would be as easy -in fact, easier- to redact an existing epistle as to eliminate an entire corpus of gnostic literature. By the way, although I don't fully understand what you meant by it, this was a characteristically interesting, thought-provoking statement from your keypad ...

... realise that you have merchants in the spiritual world too. They deal in souls and sin is their currency.
Good one!
 
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I apologize but I don't remember the context surrounding this post.

Does that Acts manuscript dating back to 90AD state that the followers of Jesus are specifically called Christians? If so can you please link me to the manuscript?
We have no manuscript dating back to the first century. The scripture simply mentions the first use of the word Christians to designated Christ-followers in Antioch.
 
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No of course it didn't......Its just spent that last what 800 years trying to knock it down along with Judaism....Fess up will ya...If christianity was the all loving religion it claims then there would be people lining up to get into it....It don't matter how much you polish a turd in the end its still a turd. And hey if christianity is what you believe then knock yourself out I don't have a problem with it.....But I can criticize it, not you but christianity.
You seem uneducated.
 
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