Lisa
Superstar
- Joined
- Mar 13, 2017
- Messages
- 20,288
Why would God talk about Himself ever as Us or Our if He is only One? In the NT He is God the Father, God the Son, Jesus and God the Holy Spirit. When Jesus talks about Himself, He is also mentioning the Father and He also talks about sending the Holy Spirit. Meaning that they are together.If you're referring to the "US" verses then that doesnt answer my question. God using "US" in three places in the whole OT while using "I, ME, MINE, MYSELF" etc... the rest of the time doesnt prove that He's three in one. Im not even sure how someone using "us" can also be 1.
But even if I believed He was referring to Hisself (or would it be They were referring to theirselves?), going by the OT, how do I know its not 2-in-1? 3-in-1? The Hindu 33,000,000(+)-in-1? He doesnt ever specify to Moses, Abraham, Noah, David or anyone else He actually directly talked to (unlike Paul for instance) that He's 3-in-1.. Tying the NT onto the OT is like tying the Quran onto the NT. To believe the Quran, you'd have to ignore some things the NT says (or didnt say). Same with the NT in regards to the OT..
Also in the Op I mention how in Genesis we see the Holy Spirit and in John we find out about how Jesus is the Word who was with God and is God. Which is also how we know there is only 3 in 1. Did you not even read the op?
The NT and the OT are all part of God’s Word and they the OT is referencing Jesus and the NT also references many scriptures in its writings. The books are both the work and will of God..
2 Timothy 3:16-17
All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.