Claire Rousseau
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- Joined
- Jan 9, 2018
- Messages
- 1,367
I'm not offended. I just don't know if I really take you seriously or not. You have one of the most unusual combinations I have seen, almost like a liberal version of a Southern Baptist. I just don't know that I have seen you demonstrate anything that would make me feel inclined to listen to you nit pick me on something like this. I mean you are entitled to your opinion, but I am entitled to reject your opinion completely, which I do basically.
I know I have explained my understanding of what this verse means just fine. The version is irrelevant when I know that my conclusion does not create conflict even if you are a king james onlyist or any other particular combination of whatever. Nothing is added to my understanding by changing make to study except that I would join the KJV only club; or, rather I would join your particular club because you don't belong to any KJV only club that I know.
This is entirely why denominations continue to form and the church continues dividing. So I will repeat myself one more time and after that, I really don't see that there is anything else I can say. Your particular brand of Christianity is like a controlling Baptist with liberal inclinations.
I would suggest that you spend more time discussing what you actually gain from studying scripture, which I have seen little of. Like for example, do you have anything to cross-reference this verse with in your course of study? Isn't that what you are suggesting that we are supposed to do, cross reference this verse with something. Of course, this is only a suggestion.
I had an example of this from the book of Job. So maybe make is a better word to use than study. It seems to produce results rather than vain babbling.
Anyways, I will repeat, the English language is much larger than the Greek language. There are many other words we could translate the original Greek word into besides make or study. Both words mean taking action in a particular way. If we make a quilt. We have to assemble something in a particular way. Most people don't like sleeping with a blanket in the shape of a triangle. There is a particular way to "make" a quilt.
In the same way, the standard definition of study is to learn something in a particular way so that if you were going to take a test, you are not going to answer that the sky is green when the book you studied says it is blue. That would be the wrong answer.
I don't know if many people have a very broad vocabulary with the English language sometimes that they get so thrown over things like this. Substituting make for study is not even the real argument that you are trying to make about the versions. You seem to be under the impression that using make instead of study means that they are being translated from different original texts and that is not what it means, but I'm sure you didn't actually investigate any of this. So you're suggesting that there is something to be concerned with is based more on superstition regarding some vague familiarity with the present debate over which text to use in translating modern versions.
If you have something that you would like to introduce that would suggest that the version that I am using for this particular verse used a different original text than the King James, I would expect a more thought out response than suggesting that make and study change the meaning of what the verse is saying because it doesn't unless you are trying to complicate things.
It is conversations like this that I was talking about when I was including the verse the follows the verse in the book of Timothy. This sort of thing was exactly what I was suggesting it was saying to not do. We have now successfully wasted a whole lot of time on nothing. You have judged my understanding based on the version of the Bible that I use rather than the description of my understanding of the difference in the words used that I have given twice now.
You continue to cling to this notion that it is wrong to use this version instead of demonstrating that anything more may be gained from your approach by giving some kind of response to the interpretation that I am getting, which I requested of you. If your version is right, then how does the right version give a better answer than the one I have given? How do you respond to the verse in context with the following verse as a whole when make is changed to study.
You didn't recognize this because you probably thought it would make a better argument to continue rattling on about how the King James Version is not corrupted even though the King James Version has been revised and the language was never updated. The King James Version was never supposed to be something plain to the reader. The King James Version changed the English language in many ways and when people learned this language and it continued changing, the King James Version just sat back and seemed to hope people would forget about it. The Authorized King James Version was a political move of King James who was almost killed when he inherited England from Queen Elizabeth.
One of the challenges of being a follower of Christ who says His kingdom is not of this world. We are left to endure kings and other authorities who do not follow Christ even if they allow for the translation of the Bible.
So unless you have a dispute with the conclusion I am getting, keep your comments about what version I use to yourself. As far as I'm concerned, you have completely proven my point.
2 Timothy 4:
2 Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine.
3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
4 And they shall turn away [their] ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.