@Thunderian in Psalm 110 David refers to God as Adonai and the one sat at his right hand (ie Jesus) as adoni.
Adoni is the lesser lord ie like lord Alan Sugar..
It doesn't mean God ie The Lord.
And the other few thousand references? What does Lord mean in those?
For instance, Numbers 15:41
I am the LORD your God, which brought you out of the land of Egypt, to be your God: I am the LORD your God.
If it was Christianity that associated the term Lord with deity, you need to explain all the references in the Old Testament to God as the Lord, especially since it's a title he gives himself.[/QUOTE]
You have misunderstood what's being said.
The hebrew words are ADONAI ie THE LORD/GOD and ADONI ie master, ruler etc. What was used in Psalm 110 for Jesus specifically was adoni. I am talking about adoni, the lesser 'lord' that is misused by christians for Jesus. It's also important to keep in mind that jews do not say Yahweh so when they recite the torah they instead say 'Adonai' but the writing really says Yahweh. I know because I have listened to it. I would not be saying this without some research.
If you look at Numbers 15:41 the correct word used is Yahweh.
http://biblehub.com/lexicon/numbers/15-41.htm
Psalm 110
http://biblehub.com/lexicon/psalms/110-1.htm
translated, it reads like this
A Psalm of David. The LORD (ie Yahweh but the jews recite the word Adonai in it's place) says to my Lord (adoni)
but if it was me translating I would have written
A Psalm of David. The LORD says to my lord
notice the subtle difference?
Luke 20:4 references Psalm 110, yet here is how it has been worded in english
David therefore calls Him Lord, and how is He his son?
the use of capitals here just like how christians have translated Psalm 110, 'Lord' is dishonest. It makes a big difference in how it is interpreted..and whilst I know you consider Jesus to be God regardless of this, it still doesn't make it right to alter the way words are used in ANY context.
Btw i'll tell you a story about how my approach tends to go. This may seem long and irrelevant but do read everything, it's about understanding these themes and being intellectually honest even with minor details.
backstory
There was a supposed convert to islam, former christian on a previous forum I was on but he was generally ignorant of religion and kept saying Jesus told him to convert to islam (he was a very basic american) He kept saying 'Lord Jesus Christ' which angered some of the muslims on the forum who were assuming he was a fake trying to corrupt the deen. There was a real herd mentality on there (those lot were salafis but against the christians they were regularly using Ahmad Deedat and Zakir Naik material on the forum). Ironically if you caught me on there you would think i'm christian at one point, or an apologist. I got accused of that but as you may have noticed I also talk about hindu ideas too so I also got called hindu. Although this did pass, it isn't that i can't let go or anything silly like that, it is moreso about understanding the way people argue and present their 'truth' and how they are supposedly backed by lies.....big topic when you started looking deeper.
So initially I defended that man's use of the word 'lord' as an ignorant mistake and nothing devious, because to me in the pre-islamic context 'lord' was used generally inc for man (as I have just explained). So instead of accepting my answer, they challenged me to produce evidence from the Quran that the term 'lord' was once acceptable. Since they also believed the bible is altered and therefore anything i quote from the bible is questionable. This was a poor tactic but an attempt to silence me because a few of them were hell bent on going after me for...a number of things id said inc saying the crucifixion happened. These experiences btw made me realise, muslims lie too.....but it also made me seperate myself from that 'herd'. So it's funny when people question whether i am even muslim. I think im more muslim than most?
So here's how my experience went when 'trying' to find this evidence.
I had absolutely no idea where to start and was more than likely going to reject their silly challenge, but those guys had real egos so I felt I needed an answer.
here's what I found
(43) But she in whose house he was, sought to seduce him from his (true) self: she fastened the doors, and said: "Now come, thou (dear one)!" He said: "Allah forbid! truly (thy husband) is my lord! he made my sojourn agreeable! truly to no good come those who do wrong!" (سورة يوسف, Yusuf, Chapter #12, Verse #23)
BUT just as I have pointed out a relatively minor christian act of dishonesty in translating ie using a single capital letter makes a huge difference in how it reads...the above translated verse from the Quran is rather accurate. but here are the others
Shakir:
And she in whose house he was sought to make himself yield (to her), and she made fast the doors and said: Come forward. He said: I seek Allah's refuge, surely my Lord made good my abode: Surely the unjust do not prosper.
Pickthall
And she, in whose house he was, asked of him an evil act. She bolted the doors and said: Come! He said: I seek refuge in Allah! Lo! he is my lord, who hath treated me honourably. Lo! wrong-doers never prosper.
Mohsin Khan
And she, in whose house he was, sought to seduce him (to do an evil act), and she closed the doors and said: "Come on, O you." He said: "I seek refuge in Allah (or Allah forbid)! Truly, he (your husband) is my master! He made my living in a great comfort! (So I will never betray him). Verily, the Zalimun (wrong and evil-doers) will never be successful."
in the arabic language, there is only the word 'rabb' whereas in hebrew there is Adonai and Adoni. In the Quran, the word used here was rabb. So depending on how the translations were written it would change the entire meaning.
the arabic transliteration
Warawadathu allatee huwa fee baytiha AAan nafsihi waghallaqati alabwaba waqalat hayta laka qala maAAatha Allahi innahu rabbee ahsana mathwaya innahu la yuflihu alththalimoona
now since muslims use rabb exclusively for Allah, seeing prophet Joseph AS use the word rabb in a context other than for God would have presented a little problem...and i am dead certain some of these translators deceitfully altered the meaning in order to 'fit' with our theology. They could have been intellectually honest, worded it correct (like the Yusuf translation) but explained in footnotes the background context, but did they even know it?
so you can see from these translations which ones are intellectually dishonest and change the meaning of the verse entirely (literally writing the Quran with their own hands, the irony).
now in the context when prophet Mohammad SAW was called 'rabb' (ie lord) by someone, he rejected it
(1) Narrated Abu Huraira: The Prophet said, "You should not say, 'Feed your lord (Rabbaka), help your lord in performing ablution, or give water to your lord, but should say, 'my master (e.g. Feed your master instead of lord etc.) (Saiyidi), or my guardian (Maulai), and one should not say, my slave (Abdi), or my girl-slave (Amati), but should say, my lad (Fatai), my lass (Fatati), and 'my boy (Ghulami)." (Book #46, Hadith #728)
even trying to present this info to those guys on that forum was a challenge, they refused to even acknowledge the point made.
Now going back on topic, just to summarise incase you missed it
Jesus is adoni/lord in the lesser sense, not as deity. Even if you believe he is God, you cannot change the meaning of adoni.
since Jesus himself directly referenced the 'lord' in Psalm 110, that is the one that should be used indefinitely. There should never be any context, ever, where you adopt the word 'Adonai' ie The Lord for Jesus (which in the correct context was Yahweh anyway).
Now in my life, ever since i was a kid, I only ever heard christians use LORD to mean God specifically. Even when I was young and asked 'why do you call him Lord' they said 'the bible says he is LORD'
surely it's about time things changed?