@julia7771, this is going to be a long response.
Relax. Jesus is the Truth, not you. this is a discussion, a supposed safe place to discuss and learn. im completely open to different insights as long as they are Biblical. I draw my own insight from this:
I take Jesus and His truth seriously since its about my salvation and eternal destiny. I am aware this is a discussion nor did I think it was anything other than a discussion. However that shouldn't mean I don't tell the truth of Jesus does it? I am not open to different insights when it comes to the truth of Jesus. There is the truth, then there is false doctrine. Remember the one that Babylon makes the world drunk with? I don't want to be drunk with false doctrine.
The three primary views on the identity of the sons of God are 1) they were fallen angels, 2) they were powerful human rulers, or 3) they were godly descendants of Seth intermarrying with wicked descendants of Cain. Giving weight to the first theory is the fact that in the Old Testament the phrase “sons of God” always refers to angels (
Job 1:6;
2:1;
38:7). A potential problem with this is in
Matthew 22:30, which indicates that angels do not marry. The Bible gives us no reason to believe that angels have a gender or are able to reproduce. The other two views do not present this problem.
1- Nowhere in the Bible are fallen angels known as the sons of God. As I told you before that comes from the book of Enoch which is not part of the inspired Word of God.
2- I didn't mention this one but in the Bible some of Israel's kings as the representatives of the people were called sons of God in a special way (
1 Chronicles 22:9-10, Psalms 2:7, 89:26-27).
3- This is biblical. There is limited information on this but from the little information we have, it is clear to see that the descendants of Seth were the sons of God and the descendants of Cain were the daughters of men.
After Cain killed Abel, God gave Adam and Eve another son, Seth. He began to have children of his own, and they
“began to call on the name of the Lord” (
Genesis 4:25-26). And from what we’ve seen in the Bible, those who call on the name of the Lord are called the sons of God.
Meanwhile Cain had been banished from God’s presence. He settled
“in the land of Nod on the east of Eden. And Cain knew his wife, and she conceived and bore Enoch. And he built a city, and called the name of the city after the name of his son—Enoch” (
Genesis 4:16-18).
So we can see the two lineages from Seth and Cain. Sadly, people from both lineages began to intermingle. The sons of God and daughters of men became familiar with each other, even friendly. Whatever the case, soon the descendants of Seth, or sons of God, began to marry the daughters of men, or the descendants of Cain.
It is not true that the term sons of God refers only to angels in the Old Testament. I've just mentioned above that some Israelite kings were also called sons of God. Israel as God's chosen nation was called the the first born son of God too (
Exodus 4:22). As I posted in my previous post to you, the term "sons of God" refers to righteous angels and people in the Bible. All those who call on the name of Lord whether they are angels or people are sons of God. I also mentioned that in
Job 1:6 and
2:1; 38:7, Satan is not referred to as a son of God. They make a point to say
"and Satan also came among them" and
"and Satan came also among them to present himself before the Lord." Why? Because Satan and all the fallen angels do not call on the Lord's name do they?
Nothing written about angels in the Bible suggests they have genders. When they appear in human form they may appear as men and they are referred to by male pronouns but they are genderless.
The weakness of views 2) and 3) is that ordinary human males marrying ordinary human females does not account for why the offspring were “giants” or “heroes of old, men of renown.”
All throughout mankind's history humans have had giant offspring. I post about it in my thread about nephilim in this post
here. In the the Bible the nephilim/giants that existed after the flood were the Anakim (
Numbers 13:31-33, Deuteronomy 1:28, 9:28), the Emites/Emim (
Deuteronomy 2:10-11), the Zamzummites/Zamzummim (
Deuteronomy 2:20-21) and the Rephaites (
Genesis 14:5-6). One of the Rephaites was Og, King of Bashan. Scripture records that his bed was made of iron and was more than thirteen feet long and six feet wide (
Deuteronomy 3:11).
"Of course, the Anakites, and the other tall, strong Canaanites, were mortal and could be defeated in battle. The Moabites, descendants of Lot, defeated and displaced the Emites, and the Ammonites, descended from Lot by a different son, defeated and displaced the Zamzummites. Israel’s victory over King Og was celebrated in song and story, and is mentioned at seders to this day (
Psalm 135:10, 11; 136:17-22; Nehemiah 9:22).
"The land of the Anakites was given to Caleb, one of the spies who was undaunted by the great size and strength of the Canaanites. In fact, Caleb and Joshua almost wiped out the Anakites. They drove the survivors out of the Hebron area and into Philistine cities of Gaza, Gath, and Ashdod (
Joshua 11:21-22; 15:13-14).
"Later, we find the remnant of the Anakites joining the Philistines and waging war against Israel. Goliath, young David’s adversary, was from Gath and was apparently descended from the Anakites who fled to Philistia. Goliath was six cubits and a span tall (
1 Samuel 17:4). If a cubit was eighteen inches, Goliath was over nine feet tall; a twenty-one-inch cubit would make him over eleven feet tall.
"David’s combat with Goliath was not Israel’s only encounter with the giants of Gath. Four other Philistine fighters are identified as
“sons of Rapha,” indicating that they were giants:
2 Samuel 21:16-21, "Then Ishbi-Benob, who was one of the sons of the giant, the weight of whose bronze spear was three hundred shekels, who was bearing a new sword, thought he could kill David. But Abishai the son of Zeruiah came to his aid, and struck the Philistine and killed him. Then the men of David swore to him, saying, “You shall go out no more with us to battle, lest you quench the lamp of Israel.” Now it happened afterward that there was again a battle with the Philistines at Gob. Then Sibbechai the Hushathite killed Saph, who was one of the sons of the giant. Again there was war at Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam. Yet again there was war at Gath, where there was a man of great stature, who had six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot, twenty-four in number; and he also was born to the giant. So when he defied Israel, Jonathan the son of Shimea, David’s brother, killed him."
Summary
"Moses wrote that giants lived before the Flood; he used the term
"Nephilim" to describe them. When the Israelites found nine-foot-tall men living in Canaan, they associated them with the
Nephilim that Moses had written about. But the
Nephilim that the Israelites encountered in Canaan cannot have been the descendants of a discrete group that lived before the flood, because everyone who lived before the flood was destroyed in it, except for Noah and his family. And these
Nephilim were not superhuman, because the Israelites defeated them and drove the survivors to the Philistine cities (and sometimes had to fight their descendants several generations later, as David fought Goliath).
"A reasonable conclusion from the biblical witness is that people who lived before the flood were of extremely large stature, and that very tall people persisted, in pockets and isolated areas, for more than a thousand years after the flood. The tribes of giants that Israel encountered in Canaan were some of these people."
This all comes from my thread about nephilim.
I also post about giants from more recent history to our time
here. Who do you think produced the giants after the flood up to our times? It was normal human beings who have the genes. Just like normal human beings can produce dwarfs because its in their genes.
Further, why would God decide to bring the flood on the earth (
Genesis 6:5-7) when God had never forbidden powerful human males or descendants of Seth to marry ordinary human females or descendants of Cain? The oncoming judgment of
Genesis 6:5-7 is linked to what took place in
Genesis 6:1-4. Only the obscene, perverse marriage of fallen angels with human females would seem to justify such a harsh judgment.
The connection between
Genesis 6:1-4 and
Genesis 6:5-7 is that after the sons of God married the daughters of men, sin increased in the world. Then God said,
"My Spirit shall not strive with man forever, for he is indeed flesh; yet his days shall be one hundred and twenty years” (
Genesis 6:3). God gave man 120 years to repent and come back to Him so they could avoid the destruction of the flood which He had told them was going to happen through Noah. During the 120 years Noah built the ark and preached to the antediluvians about the coming flood but they mocked and laughed at him. Why? Because it had never rained in those days. The Bible says,
"before any plant of the field was in the earth and before any herb of the field had grown. For the Lord God had not caused it to rain on the earth, and there was no man to till the ground; but a mist went up from the earth and watered the whole face of the ground" (
Genesis 2:5-6). God made provision so that a lot of people could be saved but they would not. In other words, the ark was big enough to take a lot of people.
Lets read directly from the Bible why God destroyed this earth with a flood.
Genesis 6:5-7 says,
"Then the Lord saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. And the Lord was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart. So the Lord said, “I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth, both man and beast, creeping thing and birds of the air, for I am sorry that I have made them.” When God made us, we were supposed to reflect His Image, He made us to be holy, happy creatures. When humans began to think selfish, evil thoughts continually, it broke His Heart. And so God said He would destroy man whom He had created. I mean He's the Creator. God abhors sin very much and He could not stand just how sinful the antediluvians were. They must have been so corrupted in their ways that in order to correct the situation, God had to to destroy both them and the earth.
As previously noted, the weakness of the first view is that
Matthew 22:30 declares, “At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.” However, the text does not say “angels are not able to marry.” Rather, it indicates only that angels do not marry. Second,
Matthew 22:30 is referring to the “angels in heaven.” It is not referring to fallen angels, who do not care about God’s created order and actively seek ways to disrupt God’s plan. The fact that God’s holy angels do not marry or engage in sexual relations does not mean the same is true of Satan and his demons.
When God created the angels they were all holy until Lucifer brought sin into heaven. After he was thrown out of heaven with a third of all the angels do you think God then chose to create in the fallen angels the ability for them to procreate? The Bible says no such thing. Humans are able to procreate because God created that ability in us. Angels whether fallen or unfallen cannot and do not procreate with themselves or humans because God did not create that ability in them. Plus angels are not human and therefore cannot produce offspring with us. Humans can only procreate with themselves.
While Satan and his angels dedicate all their time and effort to disrupt God's plan they cannot create abilities in themselves or others that they were not created with in the first place can they? They have limitations as created beings even though they are a little higher than us. They cannot have sexual relations with each other let alone with humans. They are not sexual beings at all nor do they have sexual parts.
View 1) is the most likely position. Yes, it is an interesting “contradiction” to say that angels are sexless and then to say that the “sons of God” were fallen angels who procreated with human females. However, while angels are spiritual beings (
Hebrews 1:14), they can appear in human, physical form (
Mark 16:5).
Yes angels can appear in human physical form, it still doesn't make them human does it? Angels are higher beings than us and have incredible powers that they even appear in human form but it doesn't make them human nor can they do everything human beings can do which includes procreation. Only mankind was told to be fruitful and multiply.
The men of Sodom and Gomorrah wanted to have sex with the two angels who were with Lot (
Genesis 19:1-5). It is plausible that angels are capable of taking on human form, even to the point of replicating human sexuality and possibly even reproduction.
Just because the men in Sodom and Gomorrah wanted to have sex with the angels doesn't mean and is not even remotely suggested that the angels could have sex with them. The angels appeared in human form so the people of Sodom and Gomorrah did not know they were angels. Angels cannot and have never replicated human sexuality and reproduction ever. Its not something they can do.
Why do the fallen angels not do this more often? It seems that God imprisoned the fallen angels who committed this evil sin, so that the other fallen angels would not do the same (as described in
Jude 6).
Jude 6 which says,
"And the angels kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day" is not talking about angels being imprisoned because they procreated with human beings and sired offspring (you've made the up haven't you?). That is impossible for them to do and they never have according to the Bible. Angels being in bondage in Jude 6 means that they are in bondage because they are restricted to this planet.
Remember when the demons possessed the man by the Sea of Galilee (
Luke 8:26-39)? They said,
"Jesus, have you come to torment us before the time?" It says they're reserved for judgment they know that they are chained to this world by circumstances waiting for their judgment. And the only thing they can do for their
"prison recreation" is to tempt and torment people to try and take humans with them for they know their time is short. That's why they plead,
"If you're going to cast us out of the man, at least let us possess the pigs."
Satan and his angels are restricted to this planet. And compared to the glory of God's presence where they used to live, can you imagine how dark this world is? When it speaks of chains of darkness, it's making a contrast from their first estate, which is the presence of God and the brilliant glory brighter than the sun.
Earlier Hebrew interpreters and apocryphal and pseudepigraphal writings are unanimous in holding to the view that fallen angels are the “sons of God” mentioned in
Genesis 6:1-4. This by no means closes the debate. However, the view that
Genesis 6:1-4 involves fallen angels mating with human females has a strong contextual, grammatical, and historical basis.
I have read some of the apocryphal and pseudepigraphal writings (including the book of Enoch) and they contradict the Bible on many things so that makes them false books. As for the Hebrew writers, if they agreed that the sons of God were fallen angels then they too contradicted the Bible. And obviously their writings are not in the Bible. The sons of God as fallen angels having a strong contextual, grammatical, and historical basis is not based on God's Word. Its based on uninspired books that have nothing to do with God and His Word.
This does not make me a disciple of Enoch, Satan infuses truth with lies all the time, and I most certainly have never or will never read that book.
I didn't say you were a disciple of Enoch (whoever that Enoch was), I said, "you agree with the book Enoch because that is where that false doctrine comes from. Its not from the Bible at all."
oh and:
Definition of speculate
intransitive verb
1a
: to meditate on or ponder a subject
certainly the opposite of to decree as the word of God and disseminate as such
You seem better at English than I am so I wonder where you got that definition of speculate from. I have looked up several dictionaries online and the first definition of speculate is
"to form a theory or conjecture about a subject without firm evidence." Oxford learners dictionaries says it means "
the act of forming opinions about what has happened or what might happen without knowing all the facts." Certainly that is what it means when I use the word as are you lol! And you are speculating on this subject because you have no firm evidence from God's Word to prove your doctrine. It comes from outside the Word of God.
Settle down. you lot are horribly bitter and nasty on this thread.
I may have been candid with you but that doesn't make me horribly bitter and nasty. Telling the truth of God's Word does not make a person bitter and nasty and I am settled down thank you!
Bye.